MORTGAGE SOLUTION

        If you have your original closing mortgage documents available, you'll be able to flip through them and see what the mortgage company has purposly left undisclosed and concealed from  you. The two main documents that we will be referencing will be the NOTE and the DEED OF TRUST (or mortgage). The note is commonly referred to as a prommissory note. However, it is not a traditional promissory note. 

       At the end of our mortgage solution service, which takes about four months to complete, you will have battled the bank's trustees to obtain your property free and clear. After all, you are the rightful owner of your home. Look at your Deed of Trust; your name is on it. You've already paid for your house. It was paid for in full before you even signed the papers at escrow, and you didn't even know it; nor was it disclosed to you.

The Promissory Note

       The promissory note starts out referring  to you as the Borrower. It talks about the borrower's promise to pay. Following those words, it says "In return for a loan that I have recieved." After that it says, "I promise to pay." and then the exact dollar figure is listed. Then the Promissory Note mentions the installment payments and interest. Then the Note says: "In return for a loan that I have received." Then a date is listed on that note.

       The question is: When you went to the title company or escrow office and signed all the documents for your mortgage, had you already recieved a "loan"? That's an important question. The note that you signed says at the very top. "In return for a loan that I recieved." What this is telling you is that you received a loan sometime before that date that you signed the note.

       Let's say that you signed the note on february 12, 2021. What the words, "In return for a loan that I have recieved, " it really means that at some time before february 12, 2021, I received a loan. The fact is, you did not actually recieve a loan before that date; matter of fact, you never recieved ANY kind of a loan at all...at any time! There was no loan recieved or provided you. This whole "loaning you money to buy a house" is a complete and total "Studied Concealment and misrepresentation committed against you.

There Never Was A Real Loan...

       The fact is you did not recieve a loan before the date that you signed a note. You didn't see a cashier check in the mail a few days before you went and signed those papers, did you? You didn't get any kind of an electronic transfer into your checking account before you signed either!

       When you go to the title company and signed the mortgage documents, you see the words at the top of the note, "In return for a loan that I have received," you might think, "I'll sign this and after I sign it, I guess I have recieved a loan." But that is not what the document says.

       If there is ever a legal controversy concerning whether you actually recieved a loan prior to signing or assumed you recieved a loan at the time of the signing; which side will win, the side that argues their assumptions or the side that argues the "exact words" on the pages you signed? You know the answer to that. It's the wordson the document that will win.

       When you see a document that states, " In return for a loan that I have recieved," and you know for a fact that no loan was recieved, something odd is going on. When it says, "have received" in the past tense, as though a past event has already occurred (by the date you're signing the note), you know that it has  a meaning. Everything in legal terms and legalese means something.

       The meaning of the words "have received" is that some event already happened. If you know that it didn't happen, something is wrong. Somebody is not telling the truth. Who is not telling the truth?

       As you take a close look at the note, something very interesting is taking place. Did you know that YOU created that note? Did you know that YOU created the deed of trust?

       If you closely examine the wording on the note and the deed of trust, it will begin to make sense to you. It says, " I will do this, I will do that. In return for a loan that I have recieved, I promise to pay. I understand this. I will do this, etc..." as it proceeds through the note.

       You realize that these are statements that they have printed out for you, but you are the one who is signing the documents, so it looks like you have produced and provided these statements to them. In signing these documents you assert that "in return for a loan that I recieved", it looks like they are tricking you into signing a statement that isn't true. You might think, "Hey, they are making me sign a statement that isn't true, it's a lie." By doing this, the bank is putting that lie that you recieved a loan into your mouth. You the one signing it and saying it, and that gives them the privilege to say. "The borrower says and agrees that they've received a loan, so we'll proceed on the basis of what they said and signed to. They signed the papers saying they've recieved a loan. We'll go ahead and behave as though they did receive  it, and we'll require them to make payments.

       That is not a fair and just transaction when no loan was provided to you in the transaction. No money was actually provided to you as a loan. In return for not providing a loan to you, you have to pay the bank a payment every month for the next 15 or 30 years! 

       What if I told you that everything you just read while it may be true was nothing but a distraction. Lets really examine what is going on. In this case we will use a MORTGAGE, which means death pledge by the way, but ALL court-actions are bascially the same. The CAUSE-OF-ACTION regarding the matter before the court is NOT about the MORTGAGE, but it is RELATED to the MORTGAGE. The MORTGAGE is just an insurance contract and the reason one is being relieved of the property is because on failed to pay on the insurance. And since one failed to pay on the insurance, one no longer is "entitled" to possession.

       WHY is the mortgage just an insurance contract? Well, when the substance was removed from the money, ALL contracts are just simple agreements, and 1862, Congress passed the STAMP ACT which imposed a Stamp Tax on every "agreement" of 5-cents. So, what does an Act passed in 1862 have to do with anything?

      When Lincoln placed the "government of the people, by the people, and for the people" into Trust via the Gettysburg Address, all the Acts of Congress up until that time went with it and when this Trust is administrated, keeping with the duties conferred unto Congress as granted by Article IV Section 3 Clause 2, these are the ORGANIC-LAWS being administered and pursuant to 26 U.S. Code 6201, the secretary [of the treasury] is authorized and required to make the inquiries, determinations, and assessments of all taxes (including interest, additional amounts, additions to the tax, and assessable penalties) imposed by this title, or accruing under any former internal revenue law, which have not been duly paid by stamp at the time and in the manner provided by law, 

      Therefore, when one sits down at closing and is signing all the paperwork, no one paid the Stamp Tax, thus according to the Stamp Act and the Decisions of the Commissioner:

     That is any person or persons shall make, sign, or issue, or cause to be made, signed, or issued, any instrument, document, or paper, if any kinf of description whatsoever, without the same being duly stamped for denoting the duty imposed thereon, or without having thereupon an adhesive stamp to denote said duty, such person or persons shall incur a penalty of $50; and such instrument, document, or paper, shall be deemed invalid and of no effect....HOWEVER.... The mere transfer or release of a mortgage does not require a stamp.

     So, what do we have here? It appears that when on FAILS to place the proper stamp upon the MORTGAGE executed and PROMISSORY-NOTE issued, the instrument themselves are invalid and without force and effect. What does this mean? It appears then when one is paying on an UNSTAMPED-MORTGAGE; one is actually BRIBING the PUBLIC to prevent him from seizing the property so secured by the INVALID promissory note. So, when the attorney comes to the table with an "assignment", the assignment itself needs no Stamp, but the MORTGAGE does, and the FAILURE to provide the Stamp and cancel it by the MAKER of such, invalidates the MORTGAGE, thus REMOVES the standing one may have had for now that one is relying on an INVALID instrument for standing.

     The ACTION in any court is for the ASSESSMENT of the UNPAID tax that was to be duly paid by Stamp accruing under any former internal revenue law. This is how they are taking property and why nothing one does in court seems to work with any consistency. 

     Now, there is another issue according to the Decisions by the Commissioner:

When the Clerk of a Court certifies a paper to be a copy by marking the same "Copy," and signing his name thereto, it will be necessary to affix a ten cent stamp, AND;

A stamp will be required upon every certificate which has or may have a legal value in any Court of Law or equity, AND;

The recieving of an unstamped paper is a violation of the law. The attaching and canceling of a stamp on a document so received, is also unlawful, and the cancellation of a stamp on a paper (otherwise lawfully issued) by other than the party executing the paper to which the stamp is affixed, is equally improper. Therefore, when one receives a Certified Copy from the Clerk of the Court and no stamp is affixed, the Clerk just violated the Law and the certified copies are INVALID to be used in a Court of Law or Equity. Furthermore, the papers filed into the court by the Attorney are ALSO without Stamp and this is where we fimf ourselves in a conundrum. Now, the matter is strictly insurance for without the Stamp, the mortgage contract is merely an insurance policy allowing one to violate the Law by bribing the Tax Collector.

     You fail to pay the "Protection", "the" "mob" comes to visit because without the Stamp, The MORTGAGE is INVALID, thus one never received the RIGHT to possession for the TAX has not been duly paid by stamp at the time and in the manner provided by law, and now the TAX-COLLECTOR (debt-collector) is authorized and required to make the inquiries, determinations, and assessments of all taxes (including interest, additional amounts, additions to the tax, and assessable penalties) imposed by this title, or accruing under any former internal revenue law, which have not been duly paid by stamp at the time and in the manner provided by law.

  There you go, this the TRUE reason for the foreclosure. You forgot to place and cancel Stamps on the MORTGAGE Agreement made and PROMISSORY-NOTE issued by you, thus invalidating the instruments and canceling the transfer of the property, thus rendering the Mortgage into a mere insurance contract within the admirality/maritime jurisdiction.

NO NEED TO WORRY, THIS CAN BE FIXED!!!

DON'T WAIT TILL YOUR ISSUE BECOMES A PROBLEM THAT TIME WILL NOT ALLOW US TO SOLVE. THE TIME IS NOW TO PREPARE.